Let’s say I am totally wrong in my grammar. If you follow the narative you find that there’s no way that you can say it has been kept the way people would understand it to mean in the day and was given. How? We know that the word was lost between Solomon and Josiah. You don’t need a degree in Hebrew to see this. Pick your translation. Look at the 22 chapter of II Kings. Josiah starts to rebuild the temple and then one day this happened,
(2Ki 22:8 KJV) And Hilkiah the high priest said unto Shaphan the scribe, I have found the book of the law in the house of the LORD. And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it.As you continue to read you will find that one of the changes to come out of finding this volume was that the Passover was reinstated. Can you picture that they knew anything about the law of Moses if they had forgotten the Passover. How do KJO and MAD deal with this?
If you leave them alone they will just ignore it. That didn’t work. The claim now is that it has been miraculously preserved and brought it back in its original form in the King James Bible. If you accept that Psalm 12:7 refers to the word available to David and somehow are able to include the centuries when it was lost, what about the prophets, gospels and letters of Paul? They were not preserved, they were added.
The Bible is the inspired word of God. I have no bone to pick with the KJV. In 1611 it was a landmark in the spiritual life of the English speaking world. If I could not use my NAS77 I could work with the KJV. In fact I use it to preach because the pastor is a great fan of his King James. The problem with the church is not that translation that they use but that reality that most people who call themselves Christian don’t read any translation. We may have to lose it to begin to appreciate it.
homo unius libri
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Comments are welcome. Feel free to agree or disagree but keep it clean, courteous and short. I heard some shorthand on a podcast: TLDR, Too long, didn't read.